CIEMT Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Thrombo-embolism refers to clots inside which location that can cause a myocardial infarction?
• Fowler's Position is primarily used for which condition?
• Which NOT typical TB symptom?
• Which collision type is most deadly due to potential aortic injury?
• Which of the following is a sign of the sympathetic (fight or flight) response?
• Which sign is commonly associated with meningitis?
• Which ventilation method typically uses two rescuers to deliver breaths?
• During inhalation, which of the following occurs?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 1 diabetes?
• In CISM, which statement is correct about defusing and briefing?
• Which of the following is a cause of obstructive shock?
• To facilitate insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway, you should lubricate the bevel and flex the top portion, inserting on the right side first.
• The correct measurement for sizing an oropharyngeal airway is from the center of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.
• Which phase is defined by documenting status, location, and availability after a run?
• Which finding is a sign of death?
• Which finding is most associated with tension pneumothorax?
• Which device delivers high concentration oxygen at about 15 L/min and is used for rapid oxygen delivery?
• Kubler-Ross final stage: which is the last stage in the five stages of grief?
• Which of the following is listed as a sign of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
• Which feature differentiates heat stroke from heat exhaustion?
• What medication class is used to dissolve clots in an acute myocardial infarction?
• In psychogenic shock, which action is appropriate to consider?
• Hyphema may progress to which potential outcome if not treated promptly?
• The Left Lateral Position is also known by which term?
• For abdominal evisceration, which step should be performed first?
• What does dysphasia mean?
• Which of the following is listed as a sign of ileus?
• Which statement best differentiates anticholinergic toxicity from cholinergic (organophosphate) toxicity?
• Which phase indicates arrival at the hospital facility?
• Epiglottitis commonly presents with which sign?
• When splinting, what should be assessed before and after immobilization?
• For a conscious patient with suspected insulin shock who can swallow, what is the recommended first aid step?
• Which brain region coordinates balance and fine motor movement?
• Which spider species is associated with a neurotoxin causing muscle cramps and nausea?
• Which action indicates not imminent birth and that transport should be planned?
• Which phase involves moving from the facility back toward the station?
• Angina pectoris is typically triggered by which situation?
• Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract?
• Which term is most commonly used to describe patients with emphysema?
• Silent myocardial infarction is particularly common in which groups?
• The lower airway is described as which environment?
• What is the recommended action when an Apparent Life Threatening Event occurs?
• How much oxygen do we keep after exhalation?
• What best describes the postictal state after a seizure?
• Cushing's Triad indicates increased intracranial pressure and includes which respiratory finding?
• For two-person infant CPR, which technique is used for chest compressions?
• What is the first step in the 10 steps of extrication?
• Brown recluse spider venom is categorized as which type of toxin?
• According to the material, which statement about scorpion stings is true?
• A fall is defined as a drop of at least how many feet or at least how many times the patient’s height?
• Cheyne-Stokes respirations may indicate increased intracranial pressure.
• Which symptom is commonly associated with decompression sickness?
• When using a bag-valve mask, in which of the following scenarios should you close the pop-off valve?
• PCP is best described as which of the following?
• For elder abuse, the written report must be submitted within how many working days?
• Which features define a tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure?
• Which abnormal lung sound is most associated with bronchial constriction?
• Which of the following is not listed as a drug category?
• Meningitis is primarily transmitted by which route?
• Placenta previa is best described as which condition?
• Which statement correctly describes gestational diabetes?
• Which signs comprise Beck's Triad associated with cardiac tamponade?
• Which of the following are listed as signs of Shaken Baby Syndrome?
• In the Perfusion Triangle, which component acts as the container?
• The Pediatric Assessment Triangle Appearance component includes which checks?
• Which seizure type involves no change in consciousness and presents with numbness or weakness?
• Which statement best defines status epilepticus based on the provided material?
• One-person rescuer infant technique?
• Which sign indicates progression to severe hypothermia?
• In stroke language disorders, what does receptive aphasia refer to?
• Nitroglycerin is indicated for which condition?
• In abdominal evisceration, what is added on top of the moist bulky dressing?
• Delirium tremens is a complication of withdrawal from which substance?
• The epiglottis has which primary protective function?
• Which phase is third in the sequence?
• During exhalation, which action occurs?
• The Golden Hour for Eyes is defined as approximately how many minutes?
• Which condition involves the placenta prematurely separating from the uterine wall, causing severe abdominal pain with minimal vaginal bleeding?
• Which brain region is responsible for hearing and speech?
• Which condition is a contraindication to using an MDI?
• In an angular collision, injuries are most commonly to which body region?
• Traumatic asphyxia occurs due to which mechanism?
• Which term describes a cerebral embolism?
• Which injury involves tearing of ligaments?
• Which of the following represents the hallmark signs of cholinergic agent exposure?
• In the CISM system, which is the formal meeting?
• Which of the following is a complication that can occur during normal delivery?
• Pulmonary embolism commonly presents with which symptom?
• The typical measurement for a nasopharyngeal airway is from the corner of the nose to the earlobe or tragus.
• Which type of collision is characterized by the vehicle spinning or rotating without a direct head-on crash?
• What is the primary treatment for anaphylactic shock described?
• Hepatitis is characterized by which of the following?
• Which sign is commonly associated with PCP intoxication?
• Which scenario best describes hypoglycemia (insulin shock)?
• Reverse Trendelenburg's Position is used to manage what condition?
• In negligence, which is an element indicating a failure to meet the standard of care?
• Which term refers to unlawfully touching a person?
• Which signs are associated with hallucinogen use?
• Which physiologic effect is produced by anticholinergic agents such as atropine?
• Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 2 diabetes?
• Which stage completes the General Adaptation Syndrome sequence?
• Which of the following is NOT a common early sign of hypoxia?
• What action is emphasized for absorbed poisons?
• What is the correct sequence for handling an amputated part according to the guidelines?
• Which signs are associated with narcotics overdose?
• Which of the following is a sign of respiratory distress in children as listed?
• Tension headaches are most commonly caused by which factor?
• Which structures are listed as protective components of the airway?
• In abuse protocols, what is the required timeframe for the verbal report?
• Which cardiac cell property describes the ability to conduct impulses?
• Before starting CPR, which method is used to determine responsiveness?
• When assessing a fall injury, which factors should be considered?
• Spontaneous pneumothorax is most commonly seen in which patient group?
• Modified CPR for unconscious patient with foreign body obstruction, what is the sequence?
• Bronchitis in COPD is typically associated with which description?
• Esophageal varices most commonly present with which symptom?
• For oropharyngeal suctioning, which catheter is typically used: Yankauer (Tonsil Tip) or French (Whistle Tip)?
• Which fracture type is typically incomplete and commonly seen in pediatric patients?
• In the CPR sequence with a partner, when should the AED be brought to the scene?
• Which fracture type involves multiple bone fragments?
• Kehr sign refers to referred pain in which location?
• Which phase is fourth in the sequence?
• In the sequence of the 10 steps of extrication, what is the second step?
• Which of the following is listed as a sign of cardiac compromise?
• Dyspnea refers to which symptom?
• The onset of an aortic aneurysm is typically described as which of the following?
• Which seizure type begins on one side and can progress to generalized?
• Which of the following is a classic sign of acute pulmonary edema?
• Commotio cordis is characterized by which arrhythmia?
• Which finding is consistent with left-sided cardiogenic shock?
• For child abuse, the written report must be submitted within which time frame?
• In neurogenic shock, what is the sign above the injury site?
• Which type of impact involves the occupant striking the interior of the vehicle?
• Which sign is considered a late indicator of respiratory distress in pediatric patients?
• When treating an open chest wound, how should the occlusive dressing be applied?
• Which organs coordinate to raise blood glucose during stress by releasing glycogen stores?
• Which finding is most commonly associated with ectopic pregnancy?
• Under the 1+1 rule for nitroglycerin administration via an inhaler device, how many administrations are allowed?
• For maintaining the airway in pediatric patients, what position is recommended?
• Cyanosis is described as what kind of sign in pediatric respiratory distress?
• Activated charcoal is indicated for which type of poisoning and within how many minutes?
• Direct transfer of heat through contact with a cooler surface is known as which mechanism?
• Which finding is typically associated with left-sided heart failure?
• Which statement is true about forcible restraints in EMS?
• Which is a common sign of septic shock?
• Which phase is active during the dispatch phase?
• What is the most common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients according to the material?
• Which phase occurs before the dispatch phase?
• Which item is NOT listed as a cause of seizures in the material?
• Which statement describes a moderate burn (partial thickness 15-30%)?
• In drowning or near-drowning, what is a key concern during transport?
• Which structure serves as the cardiac control center for heart rate and blood pressure?
• Which item is not listed as an initial management step for hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock?
• Which of the following is a sign of inhalant exposure?
• Which brain region is primarily responsible for vision?
• In pediatric CPR/AED terminology, pediatric refers to which age range for AED use?
• Hematochezia is typically associated with bleeding from which location?
• Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is best described as what?
• What signs are typical of depressant use?
• Which brain region is most closely associated with behavior and emotion?
• What is the first step in controlling external bleeding?
• When there is suspected spinal injury, which airway maneuver is preferred?
• What is a key component of narcotics overdose treatment?
• During neonatal assessment, if the newborn's heart rate is in the normal range (120–160 bpm), which action is recommended first?
• If the newborn's heart rate is 100 bpm or less, which intervention is indicated?
• Which pair of signs are commonly associated with meningitis?
• Which condition qualifies someone as an emancipated minor?
• Which condition is a contraindication to nasopharyngeal airway use?
• What is the primary cause of hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage?
• Which of the following best describes the aura phase of a seizure?
• Which symptom is associated with retinal detachment after blunt trauma?
• Lyme disease signs include which of the following presentations?
• Which term describes placing a person in fear of imminent bodily harm?
• Which breathing process is active?
• Which seizure type is defined by a brief lapse of attention?
• Which type of bleeding typically oozes rather than spurts?
• During a diver's descent, which injury is most likely due to the increased ambient pressure?
• In managing a sucking chest wound (open chest wound), which sequence of actions is recommended?
• Which sign is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
• In pediatric physical examinations, what is the recommended sequence?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a sign of stroke?
• The left lateral position is used for vomiting patients with airway problems.
• According to the presented treatment steps for pit viper bites, which action is recommended first?
• When applying a splint, how far should the securing strap extend beyond the injury site?
• Which breathing technique is commonly used by patients with emphysema to prevent airway collapse?
• During pregnancy, which changes occur in the respiratory system?
• In the adult Rule of Nines, which percentage is assigned to the torso?
• Which type of vehicular collision is most commonly associated with occupant ejection?
• In the Rule of Nines for adults, what percentage is assigned to the genitalia?
• Which medication inhibits the coagulation cascade to prevent clot formation?
• Which is a classic sign of acute pulmonary edema?
• In pediatric respiratory failure, which sequence best describes progression?
• Which action is listed as a treatment step for seizures?
• Which description characterizes ataxic breathing?
• Which type of bleeding is characterized by bright red spurting and is usually associated with arteries?
• In the progression of shock, what stage follows compensated shock?
• Which sign is used to indicate possible CSF leakage in a patient with a suspected skull fracture?
• During a pediatric circulatory assessment, which pulse should you check and for how long should you count?
• Which item is part of the Cincinnati Stroke Scale?
• Stage 1 of labor is defined as:
• During the bottom phase of diving problems, nitrogen narcosis results from nitrogen buildup causing what effect?
• Which sign is most characteristic of mild hypothermia?
• Oral glucose is indicated for which conditions?
• What is ataxia?
• Which components are used in basic triage assessment as described?
• In triage, what does Mental Status assessment involve?
• Scope of practice is defined by which authority?
• Diaphragmatic breathers in children are also known as what?
• Which brain stem center is responsible for detecting CO2 levels in the blood?
• Which sign is more typically associated with right-sided heart failure?
• Which sign most clearly indicates that birth is imminent?
• In triage, what parameter is evaluated by checking for a radial pulse?
• Which description correctly defines Stage 2 of labor?
• Pneumonia is best described as which type of infection?
• In the coral snake mnemonic, which color pairing indicates a venomous snake?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the upper airway?
• For chemical burns caused by liquids, which irrigation approach is recommended?
• In obstetric terminology, what does Gravida refer to?
• If one eye is injured, what should you do with the other eye?
• Which combination is characteristic of stimulant intoxication?
• According to the DOT guidance, how should febrile seizures be managed?
• Which statement best describes a classic symptom of myocardial infarction?
• Contraindications to activated charcoal include which of the following?
• In pediatrics, which finding is classified as Work of Breathing?
• Which medication inhibits platelets?
• Which phase describes the transfer of the patient into the ambulance?
• Which phase is first in the ambulance call process?
• Which phase is second in the sequence?
• Two-rescuer infant CPR ratio?
• Hyphema is the bleeding in which part of the eye?
• Which progression term describes a state with hyperglycemia, ketone production, and acid-base disturbance?
• When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an adult, you should insert it using the fishhook technique and rotate 180 degrees during insertion.
• What is the recommended initial management for a patient with severe hypothermia in the field?
• What is the first-line treatment for neurogenic shock?
• In pediatric airway obstruction, what is the initial step when the child is conscious?
• Which of the following are signs/symptoms associated with SIDS?
• Which phase involves moving from the scene toward the ambulance station?
• Cholinergic agents include which category that can be weaponized?
• Migraine headaches are typically described as which features?
• Supine Hypotensive Syndrome is mitigated by placing the mother in which position?
• If a penetrating object does not block the airway, what is the recommended action?
• Foreign body obstruction in pediatrics when unconscious: sequence?
• Which type of seizure is characterized by unconsciousness and severe twitching?
• Which of the following is a common symptom of hepatitis?
• For burns to the eyes, which irrigation direction is recommended?
• Which is listed as a cause of abdominal pain in women?
• Which rhythm is considered shockable in pediatric arrest?
• In managing a penetrating wound, when should you remove the object?
• Which step is NOT recommended when managing a nosebleed?
• Which is a contraindication to oral glucose?
• Which posture is used to manage intracranial pressure?
• What is the normal fasting blood glucose range listed?
• Which statement about hemorrhagic stroke is true?
• In pediatric airway anatomy, which feature is described as big and floppy?
• Spontaneous pneumothorax is most commonly seen in which description?
• Which blast injury type is caused by the blast wind and pressure wave?
• Inhalants can cause which complications?
• Typical angina pain should diminish in less than how many minutes?
• During CPR, what action immediately follows the initiation of chest compressions in the standard sequence?
• Left Lateral Trendelenburg is associated with which scenario?
• Which phase comes immediately before arriving at the facility?
• Which statement is NOT the recommended management for dry chemical burns?
• Which intracranial bleed typically presents with the most rapid onset after head trauma?
• A hypertensive emergency is defined by a systolic blood pressure exceeding which value?
• Which action is recommended in the field management of stroke?
• Hypoxia is defined as what?
• According to the Rule of Nines for adults, what percentage is allocated to the head?
• After administering nitroglycerin, which question is commonly asked to assess a side effect?
• An oropharyngeal airway is indicated for?
• What does EDD stand for in pregnancy management?
• In toxicology assessment, which question is typically asked first?
• Which seizure type includes loss of consciousness, lip smacking, and jerking?
• Which finding is most associated with emphysema?
• Infant unconscious check method: how is unconsciousness determined?
• Legal duty to act begins in EMS when which occurs?
• Croup is most commonly caused by which type of infection?
• Eclampsia is defined as which event?
• During suctioning, you should suction on the way out only.
• Angina pectoris is usually relieved by which of the following?
• When tuberculosis is suspected, EMS personnel should wear which mask?
• Which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which organ can typically tolerate about 45 minutes without blood before significant injury?
• During ascent, which condition can occur from ascending too rapidly or holding the breath?